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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS
| S.No | Topic | |
| Daily Hindu Analysis | ||
| 1. | India’s space programme, a people’s space journey | |
| 2. | Why does India need climate-resilient agriculture? | |
| 3. | Ensuring that the value of all lives is the same | |
| 4. | Centre’s tobacco tax rejig to take effect from Feb. 1 | |
| 5. | DRDO carries out salvo launch of Pralay missiles | |
| 6. | Ban on oral formulations of nimesulide over 100 mg | |
| 7. | Indore death toll due to unsafe water rises to 10; official sacked | |
| 8. | Facing criticism, Lokpal scraps tender to buy 7 BMW cars | |
| 9. | Zia’s passing leaves huge void, says PM | |
| Daily Current Affairs (App) | ||
| 10. | Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar to be conferred on Veer Bal Diwas | |
| 11. | Pariksha Pe Charcha registrations cross 3 crore | |
| 12. | Sri Lanka acknowledges India’s humanitarian assistance after Cyclone Ditwah | |
| 13. | The Repealing and Amending Act, 2025 | |
| 14. | Parvati-Arga Bird Sanctuary | |
| 15. | Mukundra Hills Tiger Reserve (MHTR) | |
| 16. | White Spot Disease |
Context
The article traces the evolution of India’s space programme from mission-centric achievements to a broad-based, people-centric national endeavour. It argues that space in India today is not just about launches, but about governance, development, youth inspiration, private participation and global leadership, aligned with the vision of Amrit Kaal.
Detailed Analysis
From elite science to national pride
• India’s space journey has moved beyond spectacular missions to becoming a source of national identity and everyday utility.
• Events like an Indian astronaut aboard the ISS and Chandrayaan-3’s south pole landing created emotional and societal connect, not just scientific success.
• Space missions are portrayed as moments of collective ownership, inspiring classrooms, villages and households alike.
Breakthrough lunar and planetary missions
• Chandrayaan-1 confirmed the presence of water molecules on the Moon.
• Chandrayaan-2 mapped the lunar surface with high precision despite a partial setback.
• Chandrayaan-3 achieved the world’s first soft landing near the lunar south pole, reinforcing India’s technological maturity.
• Mars Orbiter Mission demonstrated cost-effective deep-space capability on the first attempt.
A new space vision under Amrit Kaal
• The roadmap includes Gaganyaan human spaceflight, advanced lunar missions, a dedicated Venus mission, Bharatiya Antariksh Station by 2035, and an Indian human landing on the Moon by 2040.
• These goals are framed as national objectives, not distant aspirations.
Space as infrastructure for governance and economy
• Satellites now underpin disaster warnings, fisheries guidance, crop assessment, insurance claims, railway safety and geospatial planning under PM Gati Shakti.
• Space technology has become a democratic utility, directly serving citizens and public policy.
Opening space to private sector and startups
• Policy reforms have enabled private participation, leading to a growing ecosystem of over 350 startups.
• Launch vehicles, satellites and ground systems are now being developed beyond the public sector.
• Space economy has expanded rapidly, with projections of strong growth, employment generation and industrial spillovers.
Youth, innovation and future-ready skills
• Initiatives such as space hackathons, robotics challenges and astronomy olympiads bring students into direct contact with advanced technologies.
• National events and documentation projects aim to build long-term scientific temper and STEM capacity.
Global collaboration and leadership
• India positions space as a global commons, sharing benefits with neighbours and partners.
• Collaborations include joint missions and data-sharing with NASA, JAXA, ESA and CNES.
• India’s leadership emphasises inclusivity, sustainability and Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam in outer space.
Suggestions
• Sustain policy continuity to meet long-term human spaceflight and exploration goals.
• Deepen private sector participation while maintaining strategic oversight.
• Use space technology more intensively for climate monitoring, disaster resilience and development planning.
• Invest in human capital to ensure leadership in next-generation space technologies.
UPSC Mains Question
“India’s space programme has transitioned from mission-centric achievements to a people-centric national ecosystem.”
Discuss this transformation and examine its implications for governance, economy and global leadership. (250 words)
Source: The Hindu
Context
The article discusses why climate-resilient agriculture (CRA) is becoming essential for India in the face of climate change, rising food demand, and increasing stress on natural resources, and argues for a coherent national roadmap to scale it up.
Detailed Analysis
1. The growing climate challenge for Indian agriculture
• Indian agriculture is highly exposed to climate variability due to erratic rainfall, heatwaves, floods, soil degradation and air pollution.
• About 51% of India’s net sown area is rainfed, yet it produces nearly 40% of the country’s food, making food security vulnerable to climate shocks.
2. What is climate-resilient agriculture (CRA)?
• CRA combines biotechnology, biofertilizers, biopesticides, genome-edited crops, and AI-driven tools to sustain productivity under stress.
• It aims to reduce dependence on chemical inputs while maintaining or improving yields and environmental health.
3. Why does India need CRA urgently?
• Rapid population growth increases pressure on food systems to deliver reliable and stable productivity.
• Conventional farming methods alone cannot withstand rising climate stresses such as drought, salinity, heat and pest pressures.
• CRA provides technological solutions that enhance productivity while protecting soil, water and ecosystems.
4. India’s current progress
• In 2011, ICAR launched the project National Innovations in Climate Resilient Agriculture (NICRA) to build farmers’ adaptive capacity.
• Practices like system of rice intensification, zero-till wheat, climate-resilient crop varieties, residue incorporation, and water-efficient techniques have been demonstrated in 448 climate-resilient villages.
• The National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture focuses on rainfed areas, integrated farming, soil health and water-use efficiency.
5. Role of biotechnology and digital tools
• Under the BioE3 policy, CRA is identified as a key area for biotechnology-led solutions.
• Bio-inputs improve soil health and reduce chemical dependence.
• Agritech startups offer AI-enabled advisories, precision irrigation, crop-health monitoring and yield prediction, strengthening farm decision-making.
6. Challenges in scaling climate-resilient agriculture
• Low adoption among small and marginal farmers due to limited access, awareness and affordability.
• Quality inconsistencies in biofertilizers and biopesticides reduce farmer trust.
• Slow rollout of climate-resilient and genome-edited seeds and uneven distribution across States.
• Digital divide limits access to precision agriculture and AI-based tools.
• Fragmented policy coordination amid soil degradation, water scarcity and accelerating climate volatility.
Suggestions
• Accelerate development and deployment of climate-tolerant and genome-edited crops.
• Strengthen quality standards and supply chains for biofertilizers and biopesticides.
• Expand digital tools and climate advisories targeted at smallholders.
• Provide financial incentives, climate insurance and credit access during the transition.
• Create a coherent national CRA roadmap under the BioE3 framework, aligning biotechnology, climate adaptation and agricultural policies.
UPSC Mains Question
Discuss the need for climate-resilient agriculture in India. What are the key challenges in scaling it up, and how can a coherent national roadmap address them?
Context
The author examines whether India’s legal and compensation frameworks truly uphold the constitutional promise that every human life has equal value, especially in cases of road accidents, fatalities, and compensation mechanisms driven by insurance and statutory formulas.
Detailed Analysis
Unequal Valuation of Human Life
• The article highlights how compensation for death or injury often varies based on income, occupation, and age, indirectly assigning different monetary values to lives.
• For instance, the death of a high-income earner is compensated far more than that of a homemaker, child, or informal worker.
Motor Accident Compensation Framework
• Under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, compensation is calculated using incomebased multipliers.
• Courts rely on structured formulas to ensure consistency, but these formulas still link human worth to economic productivity.
Judicial Reasoning vs Moral Equality
• While courts acknowledge that all lives are equal in dignity, compensation systems focus on loss of dependency, not intrinsic human value.
• This creates a tension between constitutional morality (Article 14 and Article 21) and practical adjudication.
Invisible Lives and Marginalised Groups
• Informal workers, homemakers, elderly persons, and children are often undervalued because their economic contribution is not formally recorded.
• The article notes that this reinforces existing social and economic hierarchies even after death.
Limits of Insurance-Driven Justice
• Insurance-based compensation prioritises efficiency and predictability but fails to reflect human dignity and emotional loss.
• Fixed sums for non-earning individuals remain symbolic rather than restorative.
Need for Dignity-Centred Compensation
• The author argues for recognising non-economic loss—grief, care work, social contribution—as central to justice.
• True equality requires shifting from purely actuarial calculations to rights-based compensation.
Suggestions by the Author
• Revisit compensation frameworks to include uniform base compensation for every life lost.
• Give greater legal recognition to care work and social contribution, especially of women and informal workers.
• Align accident compensation laws more closely with constitutional values of equality and dignity.
• Ensure that justice systems do not unintentionally perpetuate inequality while claiming neutrality.
UPSC Mains Question
“Critically examine whether India’s compensation frameworks in accident and death cases uphold the constitutional principle of equality and human dignity.”
Context
The Union Finance Ministry has notified a new tax regime for tobacco products effective from February 1, revising excise duties and GST slabs to ensure that real tobacco prices rise faster than incomes, aligning taxation with public health goals.
Key Points
1. Legal and policy basis
• The Central Excise (Amendment) Act, 2025 specifies new excise duty rates on tobacco products.
• Provisions of the Health Security and National Security Act, 2025 will come into force from February 1.
2. End of GST compensation cess
• The GST compensation cess on tobacco products will cease from February 1.
• The cess was introduced to compensate States for GST-related revenue losses and had remained unchanged since GST rollout in July 2017.
3. Revised GST slabs for tobacco
• Beedis moved to the 18% GST slab from the now-defunct 28% slab.
• All other tobacco products placed in the 40% GST slab, significantly increasing their tax burden.
4. Excise duty on cigarettes
• Under GST, cigarette excise duty had become negligible, described as a “fraction of a paisa” per stick.
• The new regime resets excise duties to ensure effective price increases.
5. Public health rationale
• Government noted that tobacco affordability has stagnated or increased over the last decade.
• This contradicts global public health guidance, which recommends regular increases in specific excise duties to curb consumption.
6. Expected impact
• Higher effective taxation is expected to:
o Reduce tobacco consumption over time. o Align India’s tobacco taxation with WHO-recommended best practices.
o Increase revenue while strengthening public health outcomes.
Additional Information
• The objective of the revised structure is to ensure real cigarette prices increase faster than incomes, discouraging consumption rather than merely generating revenue.
UPSC Prelims Question
With reference to the Centre’s tobacco tax rejig effective from February 1, consider the following statements:
1. The GST compensation cess on tobacco products will cease to exist from February 1.
2. All tobacco products, including beedis, have been placed in the 40% GST slab. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: (a) 1 only Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct as the GST compensation cess will end from February 1.
Statement 2 is incorrect because beedis have been placed in the 18% GST slab, while other tobacco products are in the 40% slab.
Context
The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully conducted a salvo launch of two indigenous Pralay missiles from the same launcher off the Odisha coast as part of user evaluation trials, validating mission objectives and system performance.
Key Points
About the Test
• Two Pralay missiles were launched in quick succession from a single launcher.
• The test was conducted off the coast of Odisha using facilities of the Integrated Test Range (ITR), Chandipur.
• Both missiles followed the intended trajectory and achieved mission objectives.
Nature of Pralay Missile
• Indigenously developed quasi-ballistic surface-to-surface missile.
• Powered by solid propellant with advanced guidance and navigation systems.
• Designed for high accuracy and survivability in contested environments.
Range and Payload
• Range: 150 km to 500 km.
• Payload capacity: 500 kg to 1,000 kg.
• Capable of carrying multiple types of warheads to strike varied targets.
Strategic Significance
• Enhances India’s conventional deterrence capability.
• Suitable for targeting enemy infrastructure, command centres, and force concentrations.
• Adds flexibility to India’s tactical strike options.
Quasi-Ballistic Advantage
• Flies at lower altitudes than traditional ballistic missiles.
• Performs in-flight manoeuvres, making interception by missile defence systems difficult.
Development
• Developed by Research Centre Imarat (RCI), Hyderabad, with support from DRDO laboratories including Pune-based units.
• Reflects progress under Atmanirbhar Bharat in defence technology.
UPSC Prelims Question
Q. Consider the following statements regarding the Pralay missile:
1. Pralay is a solid-fuel, quasi-ballistic surface-to-surface missile developed indigenously by DRDO.
2. Quasi-ballistic missiles follow a predictable high-altitude trajectory similar to traditional ballistic missiles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: (a) Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct as Pralay is an indigenously developed solid-propellant quasiballistic missile.
Statement 2 is incorrect because quasi-ballistic missiles fly at lower altitudes and manoeuvre during flight, unlike predictable high-altitude ballistic trajectories.
Context
The Union Health Ministry has banned all oral immediate-release formulations of nimesulide above 100 mg, citing potential public health risks, especially liver toxicity, after consultation with the Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB).
Key Points
Health Ministry Decision
• Ban applies to oral immediate-release formulations exceeding 100 mg.
• Manufacture, sale, and distribution prohibited with immediate effect.
• Other dosage forms such as topical gels, creams, suppositories, and modifiedrelease formulations are not covered.
Reason for the Ban
• Higher-dose oral nimesulide poses a risk of liver toxicity.
• Safer therapeutic alternatives are available for pain and fever management.
• Decision taken under Section 26A of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940.
About Nimesulide
• A non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used for pain relief and fever.
• Approved only for short-term, second-line treatment.
• Already banned for use in children below 12 years and for veterinary use.
Role of Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB)
• Highest statutory technical advisory body on drugs in India.
• Constituted under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940.
• Advises Central and State Governments on drug safety and regulation.
• Functions under the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO).
Additional Information: Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940
• Regulates the import, manufacture, sale, and distribution of drugs and cosmetics.
• Ensures drugs marketed in India are safe, effective, and of standard quality.
• Defines drug as any substance used for diagnosis, treatment, mitigation, or prevention of disease.
• Defines cosmetic as products used for cleansing, beautifying, or improving appearance.
• Empowers the government to:
o Prohibit unsafe or substandard drugs.
o Regulate Ayurvedic, Siddha, Unani, and Homeopathic medicines.
o Appoint drug inspectors and mandate laboratory testing.
o Establish DTAB and Drugs Consultative Committee (DCC).
UPSC Prelims Practice Question Consider the following statements:
1. The Drugs Technical Advisory Board is established under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940.
2. Under Section 26A of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, the Central Government can prohibit the manufacture and sale of a drug in public interest. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct as DTAB is a statutory body under the 1940 Act.
Statement 2 is correct because Section 26A empowers the Centre to ban drugs posing health risks.
Context
Indore reported multiple deaths and mass illness due to contaminated municipal water supply, exposing serious lapses in urban water safety, monitoring, and governance, and highlighting India’s wider freshwater access crisis.
Key Points
Incident at Indore
• Death toll rose to 10, with over 2,000 people falling ill after consuming contaminated water.
• Affected areas include Bhagirathpura, with over 100 hospitalised.
• A three-member inquiry committee has been constituted.
Administrative Action
• Public Health Engineering Department official dismissed.
• Other municipal engineers suspended on Chief Minister’s directions.
• House-to-house health surveys conducted and suspected patients treated on-site.
Broader Issue: Freshwater Availability and Access Crisis
Global Situation
• As per UN SDG 2022, about 2 billion people lack access to safe drinking water.
• Water stress is emerging as a major public health and development challenge.
Climate Change
• Altered rainfall patterns cause droughts and floods, reducing freshwater reliability.
• Sea-level rise and storm surges lead to saline intrusion in coastal aquifers.
Population Pressure
• Global population expected to increase by 2.3 billion by 2050.
• Around 80% of water-stressed populations live in Asia (UN World Water Development Report 2023).
Groundwater Overexploitation
• Rapid urbanisation and industry deplete aquifers.
• India’s per capita water availability may fall to 22% of current levels by 2050 if trends continue.
Deforestation
• Reduces infiltration and increases erosion and turbidity.
• Raises water treatment costs and worsens drinking water quality.
Pollution
• Urban sewage and industrial effluents contaminate rivers.
• Example: Delhi contributes ~76% of Yamuna’s pollution load, turning it into a sewage channel.
Agricultural Practices
• Monoculture and water-intensive crops like rice, wheat, and sugarcane dominate.
• Poor agro-ecological planning promotes such crops in water-scarce regions.
Virtual Water Export
• Export of water-intensive crops indirectly exports scarce freshwater.
• Weak alignment between crop policy and water availability.
Q. Consider the following statements regarding freshwater availability in India:
1. Overexploitation of groundwater can lead to both a decline in water quantity and deterioration of water quality through saline intrusion.
2. Promotion of water-intensive crops in arid and semi-arid regions contributes to regional water stress.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: (c) Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Excessive groundwater extraction lowers water tables and allows saline water intrusion, especially in coastal regions.
• Statement 2 is correct: Cultivation of crops like rice and sugarcane in water-scarce areas aggravates freshwater stress and unsustainable water use.
Context
The Lokpal cancelled a tender to procure seven BMW cars worth about ₹5 crore after sharp criticism from opposition parties and civil society, raising questions over propriety and public perception of constitutional bodies.
Key Points
1. Decision to cancel the tender
• The Lokpal scrapped the tender nearly two months after it was floated.
• The decision followed a resolution of the full Bench of the Lokpal and issuance of a corrigendum.
2. Details of the proposed procurement
• The tender sought bids for seven BMW 3 Series 330Li cars.
• The vehicles were intended for the Chairperson and six members of the Lokpal.
• The estimated on-road cost in New Delhi was around ₹5 crore.
3. Nature of criticism
• Opposition parties and civil society groups accused the Lokpal of prioritising luxury over legitimacy.
• The institution was criticised as the “guardian of integrity” chasing high-end vehicles.
4. Political and expert reactions
• Former NITI Aayog CEO Amitabh Kant suggested cancelling the tender and opting for India-made electric vehicles.
5. Justification in the tender
• The tender mandated the selected vendor to provide comprehensive driver training.
• The aim was to ensure efficient, safe and optimal operation of the vehicles.
6. Governance and ethical implications • The episode highlighted concerns regarding:
o Public perception of anti-corruption institutions
o Standards of austerity and moral authority
o Institutional accountability beyond legal compliance
Additional Information
• Lokpal of India is a statutory anti-corruption body established under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, mandated to inquire into allegations of corruption against public functionaries.
UPSC Prelims Question
With reference to the Lokpal of India, consider the following statements:
1. Lokpal is a constitutional body established directly by the Constitution of India.
2. Lokpal has jurisdiction over allegations of corruption against the Prime Minister, subject to certain safeguards.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: (b) 2 only Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Lokpal is a statutory body, established under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013.
Statement 2 is correct as the Lokpal can inquire into allegations against the Prime
Minister with specified safeguards.
Context:
Bangladesh’s former Prime Minister Khaleda Zia passed away, prompting condolences from Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi, who highlighted her role in shaping India– Bangladesh relations and acknowledged the political vacuum created by her demise.
Key Points
About Khaleda Zia
• Three-time former Prime Minister of Bangladesh and a towering figure in Bangladeshi politics.
• Leader of the Bangladesh Nationalist Party (BNP) and widow of former President Ziaur Rahman.
• Known for advocating Bangladeshi nationalism and maintaining a distinct foreign policy orientation.
India–Bangladesh Relations
• PM Modi noted that her vision and legacy would continue to nurture bilateral ties.
• The message was conveyed through the External Affairs Minister during his visit to Dhaka.
• India emphasised continuity in engagement despite political transitions in Bangladesh.
Political Landscape of Bangladesh
• Awami League (AL): Centre-left, secular-nationalist party, traditionally led by Sheikh Hasina.
• Bangladesh Nationalist Party (BNP): Centre-right, nationalist party founded by Ziaur Rahman.
• Jatiya Party (JP): Smaller but influential political force.
• Jamaat-e-Islami (JEI): Islamist party with fluctuating political relevance.
• Emerging dynamics include new political players and shifting alliances, reflecting political flux.
Significance of Her Passing
• Creates a leadership and ideological vacuum within the BNP.
• May influence opposition politics and future electoral alignments in Bangladesh.
• Marks the end of an era in the country’s long-standing two-party political framework.
Q. Khaleda Zia is most closely associated with the politics of which of the following countries? (a) Pakistan
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Myanmar
(d) Sri Lanka
Correct Answer: (b) Bangladesh
Syllabus: GS 2: Social Justice | Government Policies for Children
Context
The President of India will confer the Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar (PMRBP) on children who have shown exceptional achievements in diverse fields on the occasion of Veer Bal Diwas.
Key Points
About Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar
• A prestigious national honour instituted by the Government of India.
• Conferred annually to recognise outstanding achievements of children.
• Organised by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
Fields of Recognition
• Bravery
• Art and Culture
• Environment
• Social Service
• Science and Technology
• Sports
Eligibility Criteria
• The child must be an Indian citizen.
• Age: Above 5 years and not exceeding 18 years as on 31st July of the award year.
• The achievement should have occurred within two years preceding the application year.
Number and Nature of Awards
• A maximum of 25 awards are given each year.
• Relaxation in number is permitted at the discretion of the National Selection Committee.
• Each awardee receives a medal, certificate and citation booklet.
Significance
• Encourages excellence, courage and social responsibility among children.
• Highlights the role of youth in nation-building at an early age.
• Reinforces India’s commitment to child empowerment and recognition of merit.
UPSC Prelims Practice Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar:
1. It is conferred annually to children for achievements in fields such as bravery, science, environment and sports.
2. The award is administered by the Ministry of Education.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: (a) 1 only Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct as the award recognises excellence across multiple fields. Statement 2 is incorrect because the award is organised by the Ministry of Women and Child Development, not the Ministry of Education.
Source: PIB
Syllabus: GS 2: Government Policies and Interventions | Education
Context
Pariksha Pe Charcha 2026 has recorded its highest-ever participation, with registrations crossing 3 crore by December 30, 2025, reflecting its growing national outreach and relevance.
Key Points
About Pariksha Pe Charcha
• A flagship student outreach initiative of Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
• Aims to transform the discourse around examinations from stress to learning.
Record Participation
• Over 3 crore registrations, the highest since its inception.
• Participation includes students, parents and teachers, indicating wide societal engagement.
Institutional Framework
• Organised annually by the Department of School Education and Literacy.
• Implemented under the Ministry of Education.
Digital Registration
• Registrations for the 2026 edition opened on December 1, 2025.
• Conducted through the MyGov portal, ensuring nationwide digital access.
Focus Areas
• Emphasis on reducing exam stress and anxiety.
• Promotes mental well-being, confidence and positive learning attitudes.
• Encourages dialogue between students, families and educators.
Significance
• Strengthens student-centric education governance.
• Reflects the government’s focus on holistic education and mental health.
UPSC Prelims Practice Question
Consider the following statements about Pariksha Pe Charcha:
1. It is organised annually by the Department of School Education and Literacy under the Ministry of Education.
2. Its primary objective is to assess students’ academic performance through competitive evaluation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: (a) 1 only Explanation:
Pariksha Pe Charcha is organised by the Department of School Education and Literacy and focuses on reducing exam stress and promoting mental well-being, not academic evaluation.
Syllabus: GS 2: India and its Neighbourhood Relations | Disaster Management and Humanitarian Assistance
Context
Sri Lanka formally acknowledged India’s swift and large-scale humanitarian assistance following the devastation caused by Cyclone Ditwah, highlighting strong regional cooperation during a major climate-induced disaster.
Key Points
Recognition by Sri Lanka
• The Sri Lanka Navy honoured eight foreign naval vessels, including two Indian ships, for post-cyclone assistance.
• Sri Lanka’s Prime Minister Harini Amarasuriya conveyed official gratitude to assisting countries.
Impact of Cyclone Ditwah
• The cyclone struck in late November, causing severe flooding, landslides and infrastructure collapse.
• National disaster-response systems were overwhelmed due to the scale of destruction.
Role of Indian Naval Assets
• INS Vikrant and INS Udayagiri were among the first foreign responders.
• Both ships were already in Sri Lankan waters for the International Fleet Review 2025.
Operation Sagar Bandhu
• India launched Operation Sagar Bandhu on the day of landfall (November 27).
• The operation delivered over 1,100 tonnes of relief material, including food, shelter and hygiene supplies.
Medical and Logistical Support
• India supplied 14.5 tonnes of medicines and medical equipment.
• An additional 60 tonnes of logistical material supported relief operations.
Aerial Rescue and Supply
• Helicopters deployed from INS Vikrant enabled aerial rescue and supply drops, enhancing reach to inaccessible areas.
Strategic Significance
• The assistance reinforced India’s role as a first responder in the Indian Ocean Region.
• It reflected India’s Neighbourhood First Policy and commitment to humanitarian diplomacy.
UPSC Prelims Practice Question
Consider the following statements regarding Operation Sagar Bandhu:
1. It was launched by India to provide humanitarian assistance to Sri Lanka after Cyclone Ditwah.
2. Indian naval helicopters played a role in aerial rescue and relief supply operations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2 Explanation:
Operation Sagar Bandhu was launched by India immediately after Cyclone Ditwah struck Sri Lanka, and helicopters from Indian naval assets were actively used for rescue and supply missions.
Syllabus: GS 2: Polity and Governance | Legislature and Legal Reforms
Context
The Repealing and Amending Act, 2025 was passed during the Winter Session of Parliament to streamline India’s statute book by removing obsolete laws and updating select key legislations.
Key Points
Objective of the Act
• Aims to simplify and modernise the legal framework.
• Removes outdated, redundant and irrelevant laws from the statute book.
• Enhances clarity, consistency and ease of governance.
Repeal of Obsolete Laws
• 71 Acts enacted between 1886 and 2023 have been repealed.
• These laws were no longer in use or had lost relevance in present-day administration.
Amendments to Core Legislations
• Makes targeted amendments to important statutes to improve drafting and coherence.
• Key laws amended include:
o Code of Civil Procedure
o General Clauses Act
o Indian Succession Act
o Disaster Management Act
Savings Clause
• The Savings Section ensures that repeal does not affect:
o Accrued rights and liabilities
o Ongoing legal proceedings
o Obligations incurred under repealed laws
• Protects legal continuity and prevents disruption.
Governance Significance
• Reduces legal clutter and regulatory complexity.
• Supports ease of doing business and efficient administration.
• Aligns the legal ecosystem with the needs of a modern, dynamic economy.
UPSC Prelims Practice Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Repealing and Amending Act, 2025:
1. It repeals several obsolete laws without affecting accrued rights and pending proceedings.
2. It completely replaces the Code of Civil Procedure and the Disaster Management Act. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: (a) 1 only Explanation:
The Act repeals obsolete laws and amends certain core statutes, but it does not replace them. The Savings Clause ensures protection of existing rights and proceedings.
Syllabus: GS 3: Environment and Ecology | Biodiversity and Conservation
Context
The Government has declared the Parvati-Arga Bird Sanctuary in Uttar Pradesh as an Eco-Sensitive Zone (ESZ) to strengthen ecological protection around the wetland and regulate human activities.
Key Points
About Parvati-Arga Bird Sanctuary
• Location: Gonda district, Uttar Pradesh.
• Wetland type: Permanent freshwater ecosystem comprising two oxbow lakes – Parvati and Arga.
• International status: Designated as a Ramsar Site.
Faunal Significance
• Habitat of critically endangered White-rumped Vulture (Gyps bengalensis).
• Presence of Indian Vulture (Gyps indicus) and Egyptian Vulture (Neophron percnopterus).
• Indicates high conservation value for threatened avian species.
Flora and Ecosystem
• Vegetation reflects the Indo-Gangetic ecosystem.
• Invasive species such as water hyacinth (Eichhornia crassipes) are found, posing ecological challenges.
Eco-Sensitive Zone (ESZ)
Meaning
• Also known as Ecologically Fragile Areas (EFAs).
• Notified by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) around Protected Areas, National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries.
Purpose of Declaring ESZ
• Acts as a buffer or shock absorber to protected areas.
• Regulates developmental activities around sensitive ecosystems.
• Serves as a transition zone between high-protection and low-protection areas.
Extent
• ESZ can extend up to 10 km around a protected area, depending on ecological sensitivity.
UPSC Prelims Practice Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Parvati-Arga Bird Sanctuary:
1. It is a Ramsar site consisting of oxbow lakes located in Uttar Pradesh.
2. It provides habitat to critically endangered vulture species and has been declared an Eco-Sensitive Zone.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2 Explanation:
The Parvati-Arga Bird Sanctuary is a Ramsar-designated freshwater wetland with oxbow lakes in Uttar Pradesh and supports critically endangered vulture species. It has been notified as an Eco-Sensitive Zone to enhance conservation.
Source: News On Air
Syllabus: GS 3: Environment and Ecology | Biodiversity Conservation | Tiger Reserves
Context
To promote wildlife conservation and eco-tourism, the Mukundra Hills Tiger Reserve (MHTR) administration in Kota recently launched a poster and trailer of a documentary titled “Enchanting Mukundra”, highlighting the ecological richness of the reserve.
Key Points
Location and Extent
• Located in Rajasthan, spread across Bundi, Kota, Jhalawar and Chittorgarh districts.
• Also known as the Darrah Wildlife Sanctuary region.
• Lies in a valley between the Mukundra and Gargola hill ranges.
Constituent Protected Areas
• Comprises Mukundra National Park, Darrah Sanctuary, Jawahar Sagar Sanctuary, and part of Chambal Sanctuary.
• These together form the core/critical tiger habitat.
Strategic Importance
• Located between Ranthambore Tiger Reserve and Kuno National Park (Madhya Pradesh).
• Acts as a vital wildlife corridor, especially for tiger movement and genetic exchange.
Historical Background
• Earlier functioned as a hunting reserve of the Maharaja of Kota.
• Later brought under formal wildlife protection.
River System
• Situated on the eastern bank of the Chambal River.
• Drained by tributaries of the Chambal.
Vegetation and Flora
• Dominated by Dry Deciduous Forests.
• Major species include Kala Dhok (Kaldhi), Khair, Ber, Kakan and Raunj.
Faunal Diversity
• Mammals include Leopard, Sloth Bear, Nilgai, Chinkara, Spotted Deer, Hyena and Jackal.
• Presence of Small Indian Civet, Jungle Cat, Toddy Cat and Common Langur.
• Reptiles and aquatic fauna include Python, Crocodile, Gharial, Otter and Turtles.
Additional Information
• Mukundra Hills Tiger Reserve is notified under Project Tiger to enhance longterm conservation of tigers and associated ecosystems.
UPSC Prelims Practice Question
Consider the following statements regarding Mukundra Hills Tiger Reserve:
1. It is located on the eastern bank of the Chambal River in Rajasthan.
2. It serves as a wildlife corridor between Ranthambore Tiger Reserve and Kuno National Park.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
Mukundra Hills Tiger Reserve lies on the eastern bank of the Chambal River and is strategically positioned between Ranthambore and Kuno, making it an important tiger corridor.
Source: WEEK
Syllabus: GS 3: Agriculture and Allied Activities | Fisheries | Animal Diseases
Context
The Minister of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying informed the Rajya Sabha about White Spot Disease, a major viral disease affecting shrimp and other crustaceans, with serious implications for aquaculture and fishermen livelihoods.
Key Points
Nature of the Disease
• White Spot Disease is a highly contagious viral infection affecting crustaceans.
• It causes rapid mortality, leading to severe economic losses in aquaculture.
Causative Agent
• Caused by White Spot Syndrome Virus (WSSV).
• WSSV is a double-stranded DNA virus.
• It belongs to the genus Whispovirus and family Nimaviridae.
Host Range
• Affects all decapod crustaceans (Order: Decapoda).
• Includes prawns, shrimps, crabs and lobsters.
• Occurs in marine, brackish and freshwater environments.
Symptoms
• Loss of appetite (anorexia) and lethargy.
• Reddish discoloration of the body.
• Appearance of distinct circular white spots on the carapace and exoskeleton.
• Often results in mass mortality within a short period.
Geographical Spread
• Reported from several Asian countries including:
o India, China, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Thailand, Vietnam, Indonesia, Japan, Malaysia, Philippines, South Korea, Iran, Singapore and Cambodia.
Impact
• One of the most destructive diseases in shrimp farming.
• Threatens aquaculture productivity, exports and coastal livelihoods.
Additional Information
• Department of Fisheries, under the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying, is responsible for disease surveillance, biosecurity guidelines and farmer awareness to control aquatic animal diseases.
UPSC Prelims Practice Question
Consider the following statements regarding White Spot Disease:
1. It is caused by a double-stranded DNA virus belonging to the family Nimaviridae.
2. It affects only freshwater crustaceans and does not occur in marine environments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: (a) 1 only Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct as White Spot Disease is caused by WSSV, a double-stranded DNA virus of the Nimaviridae family.
Statement 2 is incorrect because the disease affects crustaceans in marine, brackish and freshwater environments.
Source: PIB
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