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Daily Hindu Analysis
1. India, New Zealand wind up FTA talks, set to boost trade
2. Right to Disconnect: Drawing the line after work
3. NITI Aayog proposes $10-bn research fund, scholarships to ‘globalise’ higher education
4. Anjadip, indigenous anti-submarine shallow water craft, joins the Navy
5. Uttarakhand govt. a mute spectator to land grab: SC
6. World Anti-Doping Agency: India Tops Global Doping List for Third Year
7. Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB) Raising Day
8. Competition Commission of India takes cognizance of complaint against IndiGo
9. National Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC) at Lothal
10. The Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI)
Context
India and New Zealand have concluded negotiations on a Free Trade Agreement (FTA) aimed at expanding market access, boosting investments, and doubling bilateral trade to $5 billion over the next five years.
Key Points
Scope and Objectives of the FTA
• The FTA seeks to double bilateral trade to $5 billion in five years.
• It aims to enhance market access, investment flows, and services mobility between the two countries.
Market Access and Tariff Liberalisation
• India will gain tariff-free access to New Zealand’s markets for a range of goods.
• The agreement removes or cuts tariffs on 95% of New Zealand’s exports to India, covering timber, fruits, wool, and coal.
Sensitive Sectors Protected by India
• India has made no concessions on politically sensitive sectors such as dairy, onions, sugar, spices, edible oils, and rubber.
• Key agricultural products like rice, wheat, dairy, soya, and several farm items remain protected.
Investment Commitments
• The FTA includes a foreign direct investment commitment of $20 billion over 15 years, strengthening long-term economic engagement.
Mobility of Professionals
• New Zealand will provide 5,000 temporary work visas annually for Indian professionals in skilled occupations.
• Visa holders can stay for up to three years, improving services trade and people-to-people ties.
Benefits to New Zealand
• Duty-free access for products such as kiwi fruit, wine, seafood, cherries, avocados, Manuka honey, infant formula, and milk albumins.
• No concessions granted by India in the dairy sector, safeguarding domestic farmers.
Timeline and Political Significance
• The FTA is expected to be signed in the first half of 2026.
• The agreement reflects strong political will and shared ambition to deepen economic cooperation.
Additional Information: Free Trade Agreement (FTA)
• An FTA is a bilateral or multilateral agreement to reduce or eliminate trade barriers such as tariffs and quotas.
• FTAs also increasingly cover services, investment, intellectual property, and labour mobility.
UPSC Prelims Practice Question
The proposed India–New Zealand Free Trade Agreement is associated with which of the following features?
• Grant of tariff-free access for a majority of New Zealand’s exports to India
• Unrestricted market access for New Zealand’s dairy products in India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Context
The article examines the proposed Right to Disconnect Bill, introduced as a Private Member’s Bill, in the backdrop of India’s labour law consolidation and the growing blur between work and personal life due to digital technologies.
Detailed Analysis
1. Background: Digital Work and Labour Law
• Indian labour law traditionally regulates work through time-based constructs like working hours and overtime.
• Digital connectivity has expanded work beyond physical workplaces, challenging this framework.
• The Bill seeks to regulate after-hours communication but does so without redefining what constitutes “work” in a digital economy.
2. Core Ambiguity in the Bill
• The Bill grants employees the right to not respond to work-related communications beyond prescribed hours.
• However, it does not clarify whether after-hours availability or communication counts as “work”.
• This creates a gap, especially when read alongside the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020, which still governs working hours.
3. Behavioural Norm vs Labour Standard
• Due to the lack of integration with existing labour codes, the right to disconnect risks remaining a behavioural norm rather than a legally enforceable labour standard.
• Communication is regulated in isolation, without being embedded into the legal conception of working time.
4. Comparative Perspectives
• European Union: Employer control is central to defining working time; on-call and standby periods can count as work.
• France: Labour law clearly demarcates working time and rest time; digital communication is integrated through collective bargaining.
• Germany: Enforces strict working time and rest regulations, with strong employer accountability.
• These models raise a key question relevant for India: When does an employee’s time belong to the employer?
5. Constitutional Dimension
• The right to disengage has a clear linkage with Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty).
• Yet, the Bill does not articulate this constitutional grounding or clarify whether the right is statutory or constitutionally rooted.
• This omission leaves scope for inconsistent interpretation and weak enforcement.
Suggestions Highlighted by the Authors
• Redefine “work” to reflect digital labour realities.
• Integrate after-hours communication into working-time regulations rather than treating it separately.
• Align the Bill with existing labour codes to ensure enforceability.
• Clarify the constitutional basis of the right to disconnect, especially its linkage with individual autonomy under Article 21.
• Encourage collective bargaining as a mechanism to operationalise digital labour protections.
Conclusion
The Right to Disconnect Bill marks an important acknowledgment of the challenges posed by digital work. However, without redefining work, aligning with labour codes, and clarifying its constitutional character, the Bill remains incomplete. It should be seen as the start of a broader legal conversation on adapting Indian labour law to the realities of the digital economy.
UPSC Mains Question
Discuss the relevance of the proposed Right to Disconnect in the context of India’s labour law framework. What challenges does digital work pose to traditional notions of working time?
Source: The Hindu
Context
NITI Aayog has released a report outlining policy recommendations to internationalise India’s higher education system, including a $10 billion research fund and scholarships to attract foreign students and faculty.
Key Points
Rationale for Internationalisation
• India faces a large imbalance in student mobility, with 28 Indian students going abroad for every one foreign student coming to India (2024).
• Internationalisation is seen as essential to improve research quality, global competitiveness, and academic diversity.
Proposed $10 Billion Research Fund
• Recommendation to set up a national research sovereign wealth fund.
• 50% funding from diaspora and philanthropy, with the remaining 50% matched by the Union government.
• Aimed at boosting high-end research and global collaborations.
Vishwa Bandhu Scholarships and Fellowships
• Vishwa Bandhu scholarships to attract foreign students to Indian institutions.
• Vishwa Bandhu fellowships to bring international faculty and researchers to India.
• Intended to position India as a global education and research hub.
Regulatory and Institutional Reforms
• Proposal to ease regulatory frameworks to enable international campuses in India.
• The proposed Higher Education Commission of India / Manak Parishad to design non-binding frameworks for internationalisation.
• Focus on improving branding, outreach, curriculum, and academic culture.
Global Benchmarks and Models
• Suggestion to introduce an Erasmus-like exchange programme to promote student mobility.
• Expansion of NIRF criteria to align with global standards and NEP 2020 goals.
Long-Term Vision
• India aims to significantly increase the number of international students by 2047.
• As of 2022, India hosted about 47,000 international students, indicating large growth potential.
Additional Information: NITI Aayog
• NITI Aayog is the policy think tank of the Government of India, providing strategic and technical advice on development priorities.
• It plays a key role in aligning national policies with long-term vision documents and reforms, including education and research.
UPSC Prelims Practice Question
The Vishwa Bandhu scholarships, recently proposed in policy discussions, are primarily associated with which of the following objectives?
A. Financing domestic student loans for higher education
B. Attracting foreign students and faculty to Indian higher education institutions
C. Promoting vocational education in rural areas
D. Funding school education infrastructure
Answer: B
Context
The Indian Navy has inducted Anjadip, an indigenously designed and built anti-submarine warfare shallow water craft (ASW SWC), strengthening coastal security and underlining India’s push for self-reliance in defence manufacturing.
Key Points
Induction and Significance
• Anjadip is the third of eight ASW SWCs being inducted into the Indian Navy.
• The induction marks a major step in Atmanirbhar Bharat and indigenous naval shipbuilding.
Design and Construction
• Designed and built by Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE), Kolkata.
• Executed under a public–private partnership between GRSE and L&T Shipyard, Kattupalli.
• Built in accordance with Indian Register of Shipping (IRS) classification rules.
Platform Characteristics
• Approximate length of 77 metres, making it among the largest Indian naval vessels propelled by waterjets.
• Optimised for shallow water operations in coastal regions.
Combat and Surveillance Capabilities
• Equipped with indigenous lightweight torpedoes, anti-submarine rockets, and shallow-water sonar.
• Enhances detection and engagement of underwater threats, coastal surveillance, and mine-laying operations.
Indigenous Content and Armament
• Fitted with an indigenous 30-mm naval surface gun.
• Boasts over 80% indigenous content, reflecting growth of the domestic defence ecosystem.
Strategic and Symbolic Value
• Named after Anjadip Island off the coast of Karwar, Karnataka.
• Reincarnates the legacy of the erstwhile INS Anjadip, reinforcing maritime heritage.
Additional Information: Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE)
• A leading defence public sector shipyard under the Ministry of Defence.
• Has delivered 115 warships to the Indian Navy and is a key pillar of indigenous naval shipbuilding.
UPSC Prelims Practice Question
Anjadip, recently inducted into the Indian Navy, is best described as:
A. An aircraft carrier designed for blue-water naval dominance
B. A shallow water craft optimised for anti-submarine warfare and coastal security
C. A nuclear-powered submarine with strategic deterrence role
D. A destroyer equipped primarily for anti-air warfare
Answer: B
Context
The Supreme Court censured the Uttarakhand government for inaction in a decades-old case involving alleged systematic encroachment of forest land that had been re-vested with the State, and issued strict interim directions to prevent further alienation.
Key Points
Background of the Dispute
• 2,866 acres were notified as government forest land over four decades ago.
• Part of the land was leased to Pashulok Seva Samiti, which later allotted parcels to its members.
• The society was liquidated, and 594 acres were surrendered in 1984 and re-vested as forest land.
Claims by Private Individuals
• Despite re-vesting, private individuals began claiming ownership around 2001, citing a compromise decree linked to the old dispute.
• The Supreme Court observed a prima facie case of systematic land grabbing.
Supreme Court’s Observations
• The State was termed a “silent spectator” while forest land was encroached upon.
• The Court flagged administrative failure and lack of vigilance by State authorities.
Court Directions
• Inquiry committee: Chief Secretary and Principal Chief Conservator of Forests to constitute a committee and submit a report.
• Immediate restrictions:
• Bar on selling, transferring, or creating third-party rights.
• No construction activity permitted.
• Possession of land: Vacant land (except residential houses) to be taken over by the Forest Department and Collector.
Next Course of Action
• Matter posted for further hearing on January 5.
• Court expanded the scope to examine systemic issues in protection of forest land.
Additional Information: Forest Land Governance in India
• Forest land is protected under constitutional principles (Article 48A, Article 51A(g)) and statutory frameworks.
• States act as trustees of forest resources and are duty-bound to prevent encroachment and illegal diversion.
GS Paper: GS II – International Organisations / Governance in Sports
Context
India has topped the World Anti-Doping Agency’s global list of doping offenders for the third consecutive year, raising concerns about sports ethics, athlete awareness, and anti-doping enforcement mechanisms.
Key Points
About the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA)
• Established: 1999 as an independent international agency.
• Objective: To lead and coordinate a worldwide movement for doping-free sport.
• Core role: Develop, harmonise and monitor anti-doping rules across sports and countries.
• Key activities: Scientific research, education, intelligence & investigations, capacity building, and compliance monitoring.
• Headquarters: Montreal, Canada.
Governance Structure
• Foundation Board:
• 42 members; highest policy-making body.
• Joint representation from the Olympic Movement and governments from all five continents.
• Executive Committee (ExCo):
• 16 members; responsible for management, implementation of policies, and administration.
Prelims Practice Question
Consider the following statements regarding the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA):
• WADA was established as an independent international agency to harmonise anti-doping rules across sports and countries.
• The Executive Committee of WADA is the highest policy-making body of the organisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct as WADA was set up in 1999 to coordinate and harmonise global anti-doping policies.
Statement 2 is incorrect because the Foundation Board, not the Executive Committee, is the highest policy-making body.
Source: Indian Express
GS Paper: GS III – Internal Security
Context
The Prime Minister, Narendra Modi, extended greetings to all personnel of the Sashastra Seema Bal on the occasion of its Raising Day, recognising its role in guarding India’s sensitive borders and ensuring internal security.
Key Points
About the Sashastra Seema Bal
• Established: 15 March 1963, after the Sino–Indian conflict of 1962.
• Earlier name: Special Service Bureau.
• Ministry: Ministry of Home Affairs.
• Status: One of the Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs).
• Border responsibility: Guards India’s international borders with Nepal and Bhutan.
Roles and Functions
• Border guarding: Ensures security along India–Nepal and India–Bhutan borders.
• Internal security: Prevents smuggling, illegal immigration, and transnational crimes.
• Border management: Prevents unlawful entry and exit across designated borders.
• Community outreach: Promotes security awareness among border populations.
• Civic action: Undertakes border area development works such as schools, roads and basic infrastructure.
• Additional duties: Performs law and order duties, election duty, counter-insurgency operations, and UN missions as assigned.
Organisational Structure
• Leadership: Headed by a Director General (IPS or senior CAPF officer).
• Composition: Infantry-style battalions with specialised wings such as engineering, signals, medical units, dog squads and training centres.
Prelims Practice Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB):
• The Sashastra Seema Bal is responsible for guarding India’s borders with Nepal and Bhutan.
• The Sashastra Seema Bal functions under the Ministry of Defence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct as SSB guards the India–Nepal and India–Bhutan borders.
Statement 2 is incorrect because SSB functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs, not the Ministry of Defence.
Source: PIB
GS Paper: GS III – Economy | Competition Policy & Regulation
Context
The Competition Commission of India has taken cognizance of information filed against IndiGo following recent flight disruptions, bringing issues of competition and consumer interest in the aviation sector into focus.
Key Points
About the Competition Commission of India
• Nature: Statutory body established under the Competition Act, 2002.
• Established: March 2009.
• Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
• Headquarters: New Delhi.
• Mandate: Eliminate practices having adverse effect on competition, protect consumer interests, and ensure freedom of trade in Indian markets.
Composition
• Structure: Quasi-judicial body.
• Members: One Chairperson and six Members.
• Appointments: Made by the Central Government.
• Eligibility: Minimum 15 years of professional experience in law, finance, economics, international trade, etc.
• Tenure: Five years.
Functions of the Competition Commission of India
• Promoting fair competition: Prevents anti-competitive practices such as cartels, price-fixing, and bid rigging.
• Consumer protection: Ensures competitive pricing, quality goods and services.
• Regulating dominance: Curbs abuse of dominant position by enterprises.
• Merger control: Reviews combinations, mergers, and acquisitions to prevent monopolies.
• Enforcement: Conducts investigations, imposes penalties, and issues corrective orders.
• Advisory role: Advises governments and coordinates with sectoral regulators on competition issues.
Q. Consider the following statements regarding the Competition Commission of India (CCI):
• The Competition Commission of India can inquire into anti-competitive agreements, abuse of dominant position, and regulate combinations.
• The Chairperson and Members of the Competition Commission of India are appointed by the President of India on the recommendation of a judicial collegium.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: (a)
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: CCI has jurisdiction over anti-competitive agreements, abuse of dominance, and mergers & acquisitions under the Competition Act, 2002.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Members of the CCI are appointed by the Central Government, not by the President through a judicial collegium.
GS Paper: GS I – Art and Culture
Context
India and the Netherlands have signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to cooperate on the development of the National Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC) at Lothal, highlighting India’s efforts to preserve and showcase its ancient maritime legacy.
Key Points
What is NMHC
• The National Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC) is a flagship heritage project to showcase India’s 4,500–5,000-year-old maritime history.
• It is being developed as India’s first national institution dedicated exclusively to maritime heritage.
Location and Administration
• Location: Lothal, near Ahmedabad, Gujarat.
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.
Major Components
• World-class Maritime Museum with galleries on ancient navigation, shipbuilding, trade routes, naval history and coastal cultures.
• Maritime research and training centre for scholars and professionals.
• Venue for global maritime fairs, exhibitions and cultural events.
International Collaboration
• Developed with international cooperation, including collaboration with the National Maritime Museum, Amsterdam.
• Focus on museum design, curation, conservation practices and knowledge exchange.
Public Outreach and Technology
• Emphasis on inclusive access for students, local communities and underprivileged groups.
• Use of modern technology and immersive visitor experiences to enhance learning and engagement.
Prelims Practice Question
Consider the following statements regarding the National Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC) at Lothal:
• The NMHC is being developed under the Ministry of Culture as a national museum on maritime history.
• The project involves international collaboration, including cooperation with maritime institutions from the Netherlands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: (b)
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The nodal ministry for NMHC is the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, not the Ministry of Culture.
• Statement 2 is correct: India has signed an MoU with the Netherlands, including collaboration with the National Maritime Museum, Amsterdam.
Source: Indian Express
GS Paper: GS III – Economy (International Financial Institutions)
Context
The International Monetary Fund (IMF) has approved USD 206 million in emergency funding for Sri Lanka under the Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) to address urgent balance-of-payments needs following Cyclone Ditwah.
Key Points
What is the Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI)
• RFI is an IMF emergency lending facility providing quick financial assistance to countries facing urgent balance-of-payments (BoP) pressures.
• It is designed for crises such as natural disasters, external shocks, or domestic instability.
Purpose and Objective
• To provide immediate liquidity during short-term crises.
• To prevent severe economic disruption when a full IMF programme is not required or feasible.
Nature of Assistance
• Single, rapid disbursement of funds.
• Meant for urgent and temporary BoP needs.
Conditionality
• Does not require a comprehensive economic reform programme.
• Involves limited conditionality, unlike Extended Fund Facility (EFF) or Stand-By Arrangements (SBA).
Institutional Framework
• Administered by the IMF as part of its crisis-response toolkit.
• Can be accessed by all IMF member countries facing sudden shocks.
Q. The Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI), often seen in the news, is associated with which of the following international organisations?
(a) World Bank
(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) Asian Development Bank
(d) Bank for International Settlements
Correct Answer: (b) International Monetary Fund
Explanation:
The Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) is an emergency lending facility of the International Monetary Fund (IMF), designed to provide quick financial assistance to member countries facing urgent balance-of-payments crises due to shocks such as natural disasters or external instability.
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