Daily Current Affairs (CA ) for UPSC 22nd Jan 2026

Index
S.NoTopic
Daily Hindu Analysis (YouTube)
1. Judicial removal — tough law with a loophole
2. Why AI infrastructure matters more
3. Mozambican rights activist to get Indira Gandhi Peace Prize
4. EC discretion is not unregulated power: SC
5. Diverse team of experts to ‘define’ Aravalis
6. Rupee sinks 68 paise to fresh low of ₹91.7/USD on persistent FPI outflow
Daily Current Affairs (App)
7. Central Silk Board
8. World Economic Forum (WEF)
9. Lok Sabha to launch digital attendance system
10. Punjab Police launches ‘Operation Parhar’
11. Abu Dhabi ranked world’s safest city for 10th consecutive year
12. Internet Governance Internship & Capacity Building Scheme (IGICBS)

Judicial removal — tough law with a loophole


GS 2: Polity and Governance – Judiciary, Constitutional Provisions, Checks and Balances

Context

The author analyses India’s constitutional mechanism for the removal of judges in the backdrop of a recent impeachment notice against a High Court judge, and argues that despite being intentionally stringent, the law contains a serious procedural loophole that can defeat the purpose of judicial accountability.

Detailed Analysis

1. Constitutional Framework for Judicial Removal

Removal of a Supreme Court judge is provided under Articles 124(4) and 124(5); for High Court judges under Articles 217(1)(b) and 218.

The Constitution avoids the word impeachment and instead uses “removal” for judges.

A judge can be removed only on grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.

2. Meaning of Misbehaviour

Misbehaviour is not explicitly defined in the Constitution.

Judicial interpretation has clarified it to include wilful misconduct, corruption, lack of integrity, moral turpitude, or abuse of office.

Errors of judgment or negligence alone do not amount to misbehaviour.

3. Statutory Procedure

Parliament enacted the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 and related Rules.

A motion for removal requires signatures of 100 Lok Sabha MPs or 50 Rajya Sabha MPs.

If admitted, a three-member inquiry committee (Supreme Court judge, High Court Chief Justice, and a distinguished jurist) investigates the charges.

4. Role of the Presiding Officer

The motion is submitted to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha or Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

The Presiding Officer has the power to admit or refuse the motion at the threshold.

This discretion is crucial and controversial.

5. The Core Loophole Highlighted

The law does not prescribe clear criteria for admitting or rejecting an impeachment motion.

Even a motion signed by the required number of MPs can be disallowed without reasons.

If disallowed, no inquiry committee is formed, rendering the constitutional mechanism ineffective.

6. Contrast with Removal of the President

Under Article 61, impeachment of the President is mandatory once a resolution is moved.

No similar obligation exists for the Speaker/Chairman in judicial removal cases.

This asymmetry creates an institutional imbalance.

7. Risk of Executive or Political Influence

Since Presiding Officers often belong to ruling parties, the discretion may be politically influenced.

A government unwilling to proceed can indirectly shield an errant judge.

Thus, a serious constitutional safeguard can be neutralised by executive convenience.

Suggestions of the Author

Article 124(5) should be revisited to clearly define conditions for admissibility of a motion.

The Speaker/Chairman’s discretion should be structured and reasoned, not absolute.

Admission of a motion meeting numerical requirements should be mandatory, followed by inquiry.

This would balance judicial independence with accountability.

UPSC Mains Practice Question

“India’s constitutional mechanism for removal of judges prioritises independence but inadequately ensures accountability.”
Critically examine in the light of the role of the Speaker/Chairman in admitting impeachment motions.


Why AI infrastructure matters more






GS 3: Science & Technology – Artificial Intelligence, Digital Infrastructure, Economic Development

Context

The author argues that India’s AI future will be shaped not merely by applications and algorithms, but by who controls access to AI infrastructure such as compute power, datasets, and model ecosystems, as highlighted in the government’s white paper on democratising access to AI infrastructure.

Detailed Analysis

1. Shifting the AI Debate: From Applications to Infrastructure

India’s AI discourse often focuses on tools like chatbots and automation.

The author stresses that infrastructure ownership, not applications, will determine innovation, governance, and sovereignty.

AI infrastructure is emerging as a foundational economic asset, similar to roads or electricity.

2. AI Infrastructure as a Public Good

The article makes a case for treating AI infrastructure as digital public utility.

It has two layers:

Physical layer: data centres, GPUs, high-performance computing, energy systems.

Digital layer: datasets, model repositories, governance frameworks, access protocols.

Public access to these layers enables research, innovation, and inclusive growth.

3. India’s Structural Imbalance

India generates nearly 20% of global data but hosts only about 3% of global data centre capacity.

This forces Indian startups, researchers, and institutions to rely on foreign compute platforms, limiting autonomy.

The imbalance affects competitiveness and strategic control.

4. Role of Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI)

The author highlights India’s DPI approach as a strategic advantage.

Platforms such as AI Kosh, Bhashini, and TGDex show how standards-based systems can democratise access while ensuring interoperability and accountability.

DPI enables shared infrastructure without monopolisation.

5. Risk of Concentration and Strategic Dependence

Globally, AI infrastructure is increasingly concentrated among a few firms controlling advanced chips, compute, and frontier models.

This concentration raises entry barriers, amplifies market power, and creates strategic vulnerabilities.

For India, dependence on external AI infrastructure can weaken bargaining power and expose sensitive sectors.

6. Sustainability and Energy Concerns

AI infrastructure expansion has significant energy and environmental costs.

The author stresses the need for energy-efficient architectures, advanced cooling systems, and alignment with renewable energy goals.

Without planning, AI growth could worsen water and power stress in resource-constrained regions.

7. Public–Private Partnerships (PPPs)

The scale of AI infrastructure cannot be delivered by the State alone.

Well-designed PPPs can combine public oversight with private efficiency.

Clear governance frameworks are essential to ensure transparency and public interest alignment.

8. Access as Destiny

The central thesis is that access determines outcomes.

Countries that democratise AI infrastructure will shape innovation and governance.

Those that do not will remain dependent consumers of foreign technology.

Suggestions of the Author

Develop sovereign AI infrastructure without isolating from global collaboration.

Use DPI-led shared infrastructure models to prevent concentration.

Promote affordable access to compute and datasets for startups, academia, and public services.

Ensure AI infrastructure expansion is sustainable and energy-efficient.

Adopt a phased, modular, trust-centric policy framework grounded in transparency.

UPSC Mains Practice Question

“Democratising access to artificial intelligence infrastructure is critical for India’s technological sovereignty and inclusive growth.”
Discuss in the context of Digital Public Infrastructure and global concentration of AI capabilities.

Source: The Hindu

Mozambican rights activist to get Indira Gandhi Peace PrizeGS 2: International Relations – Peace, Humanitarianism, Global Recognition 



Mozambican rights activist to get Indira Gandhi Peace Prize. GS 2: International Relations – Peace, Humanitarianism, Global Recognition Context

Mozambican human rights activist Graca Machel has been selected for the Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for 2025, as announced by the Indira Gandhi Memorial Trust. Key PointsSelection and JuryDecision taken by an international jury chaired by Shivshankar Menon.Selection recognises path-breaking humanitarian work. Reasons for the AwardHonoured for contributions in education, health, nutrition, economic empowerment, and humanitarian action.Her work is rooted in self-determination and protection of vulnerable communities. Award DetailsAward includes a cash prize of ₹1 crore, a citation, and a trophy.Conferred by the Indira Gandhi Memorial Trust. Indira Gandhi Peace PrizeInstituted in 1986 in memory of Indira Gandhi.Also known as the Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament, and Development.Awarded annually to individuals or organisations without distinction of nationality, race, or religion.Recognises efforts towards international peace, disarmament, economic cooperation, development, scientific progress for human good, and expansion of freedom.Past recipients include: Mikhail Gorbachev, UNICEF, Jimmy Carter, UN & Kofi Annan, Angela Merkel, ISRO, Manmohan Singh, Sir David Attenborough, Pratham NGO, Indian Medical Association, Daniel Barenboim & Ali Abu Awwad. UPSC Prelims Practice QuestionQ. Consider the following statements regarding the Indira Gandhi Peace Prize:1.It is awarded annually to individuals or organisations irrespective of nationality.2.It was instituted in 1986 by the Government of India.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2Correct Answer: (a)Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct as the award is open to all nationalities.
Statement 2 is incorrect because it was instituted by the Indira Gandhi Memorial Trust, not directly by the Government of India.



EC discretion is not unregulated power: SC
 



GS 2: Polity and Governance – Election Commission of India, Constitutional Bodies 
Context
The Supreme Court clarified that the Election Commission of India (ECI) does not enjoy unfettered discretion and must act within the framework of constitutional and statutory rules, while hearing a case related to revision of electoral rolls.
Key Points Supreme Court’s Observation
The Court held that ECI’s discretion is not absolute or unregulated.Authorities may deviate, but cannot discard prescribed rules and procedures.Issue Before the CourtThe case concerned intensive revision of electoral rolls.The Court questioned deviations from prescribed forms and notified documents under election rules.
Rule-Based Limitation
The Bench referred to Rule 25 of the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960, which mandates procedures for intensive revision.Any revision must follow Rules 4 to 23, including preparation of a fresh electoral roll.Key Judicial ReasoningRule 25 acts as a check on arbitrariness.No authority, “however high”, can act in an untrammelled or unregulated manner 
Statutory Argument by ECI
It was argued that Section 21 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950 allows revision of electoral rolls.The Court emphasised that such power must still be exercised within statutory limits. Constitutional Principle ReinforcedThe judgment reinforces rule of law and procedural fairness in election administration.Independence of ECI does not mean immunity from judicial scrutiny
Election Commission of IndiaGenesis:
 A permanent constitutional body established on 25 January 1950.National Voters’ Day: Celebrated on 25 January since 2011.Constitutional Basis: Part XV (Articles 324–329) of the Constitution.
Statutory Framework
Governed by the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners Act, 2023.Key Functions: Conducts elections to Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies, and offices of the President and Vice President.
Composition
One Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners (permanent since 1993).
UPSC Prelims Practice Question
Q. Consider the following statements regarding the Election Commission of India (ECI):1.The ECI derives its constitutional authority from Part XV of the Constitution.2.The ECI’s discretionary powers are absolute and immune from judicial review.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2Correct Answer: (a)Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct as Articles 324–329 deal with elections and the ECI.
Statement 2 is incorrect because the Supreme Court has clarified that ECI discretion is subject to constitutional and statutory limits. Source: The Hindu

Diverse team of experts to ‘define’ Aravalis


GS 3: Environment & Ecology – Environmental Protection, Mining, Biodiversity 

  ContextThe Supreme Court is examining the issue of defining the Aravalli range, as an unclear definition could strip large areas of environmental protection and expose them to unregulated mining.  Key PointsIssue Before the CourtThe case concerns the definition of the Aravalli hills for environmental protection.An inadequate definition could lead to a regulatory vacuum. Intervention in the CaseSenior advocate Kapil Sibal questioned the feasibility of strictly defining mountain ranges.He argued that mountains like the Aravallis and Himalayas are geological strata, not rigid entities. Court’s Earlier FindingThe Court noted that only 1,048 out of 12,081 Aravalli hills in Rajasthan meet the 100-metre elevation threshold.Hills below this threshold risk being excluded from environmental safeguards. Environmental ConcernsExclusion from protection could expose lower Aravalli ranges to unregulated mining and ecological degradation.The Court acknowledged a significant regulatory lacuna in safeguarding the Aravallis. Judicial ApproachThe Court stayed its earlier judgment on defining the Aravallis.It expressed openness to expert views and non-adversarial inputs. Way ForwardThe Supreme Court indicated the need for a diverse team of experts.Expert inputs are required to ensure scientific, legal, and environmental balance in protection.  Supreme Court of India’s stand:The Supreme Court plays a key role in environmental jurisprudence through judicial review.It has intervened in several cases to prevent ecological damage caused by mining and weak regulation.
Rupee sinks 68 paise to fresh low of ₹91.7/USD on persistent FPI outflow

GS 3: Indian Economy – External Sector, Exchange Rate, Capital Flows 

  ContextThe Indian rupee fell to a record low of around ₹91.7 per US dollar due to persistent foreign portfolio investor (FPI) outflows and heightened global geopolitical and financial uncertainties.   Key PointsMovement of the RupeeThe rupee depreciated by 68 paise in a single session, marking its steepest fall in two months.It touched an intraday low of ₹91.65 per dollarPrimary Reason: FPI OutflowsForeign institutional investors have withdrawn over ₹30,000 crore from Indian equities.Persistent capital outflows increased demand for the US dollar, pressuring the rupee. Global and Geopolitical FactorsRising geopolitical risks, including uncertainty related to U.S. global actions, intensified risk aversion.Delays in international trade negotiations added to market nervousness. Role of RBIIntermittent RBI interventions were insufficient to offset the pace of depreciation.RBI Governor stated that a nation should not be judged solely by its exchange rate Impact on CommoditiesGlobal uncertainty boosted safe-haven demand.Gold and silver prices surged sharply, reflecting investor risk aversion. Market ImplicationsA weaker rupee can raise import costs and contribute to imported inflation.Exporters may gain price competitiveness, but volatile currency movements affect overall stability.  Reserve Bank of India’s Role:RBI manages currency volatility through market interventions and monetary tools.Exchange rate management aims at orderly movement, not a fixed target.RBI prioritises macroeconomic stability over defending specific currency levels.  UPSC Prelims Practice QuestionPersistent depreciation of the Indian rupee is most directly associated with which of the following factors?(a) Increase in foreign portfolio investment inflows
(b) Decline in demand for US dollar assets
(c) Sustained foreign portfolio investor outflows
(d) Rise in domestic savings rate

Correct Answer: (c)Explanation:
Sustained FPI outflows increase demand for foreign currency, especially the US dollar, leading to depreciation of the rupee. Source: The Hindu
Central Silk Board

Syllabus: GS Paper III – Indian Economy
Topic: Agriculture Allied Activities, Sericulture, Institutional Support ContextRecently, the Government of India increased the financial approval limit of the Central Silk Board to ₹1 crore from ₹50 lakh by amending Rule 22 of the Central Silk Board Rules, 1955, aimed at improving administrative efficiency. 

Key Points

  • Statutory Status: The Central Silk Board is a statutory body established in 1948 by an Act of Parliament.


  • Nodal Ministry: It functions under the Ministry of Textiles, Government of India.


  • Headquarters: Located at Bengaluru.


  • Advisory Role: Advises the Central Government on development of the silk industry, including import and export of raw silk.


  • Reporting Function: Prepares and submits reports on the silk sector as required by the Central Government.


  • Employment Generation: Promotes scientific sericulture practices to enhance employment and income in rural areas.


  • India’s Global Position: India is the second-largest producer and consumer of silk in the world.


  • Production Growth: Raw silk production increased from 31,906 MT (2017–18) to 38,913 MT (2023–24).


  • Major Producing States: Karnataka (largest producer) and Andhra Pradesh.


  • Silk Varieties: India produces Mulberry, Eri, Tasar, and Muga silk.


Prelims Practice Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Central Silk Board:1. It is a statutory body functioning under the Ministry of Textiles.2. India is the largest producer of silk globally due to dominance in mulberry silk.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2Correct Answer: (a)Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct as the Central Silk Board is a statutory body under the Ministry of Textiles.
Statement 2 is incorrect because India is the second-largest, not the largest, producer of silk globally. Source: PIB


World Economic Forum (WEF)

Syllabus: GS Paper II – International Relations
Topic: International Institutions, Global Platforms

Context

Union Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw recently clarified that while India engages with major global powers, the World Economic Forum (WEF) at Davos primarily serves as a platform for exchange of ideas, not for formal trade negotiations.

Key Points

  • Nature of Organisation: The World Economic Forum is an international non-profit organisation.


  • Year of Establishment: It was established in 1971.


  • Core Philosophy: Promotes the stakeholder theory, focusing on broader societal impact beyond profits.


  • Mission Statement: Works with the mission “to improve the state of the world through public-private cooperation.”


  • Annual Meeting: Best known for its annual meeting at Davos, a Swiss ski resort.


  • Participants: Brings together government leaders, business executives, and civil society representatives.


  • Focus Areas: Addresses global challenges such as climate change, economic instability, and global security.


  • Funding Structure: Funded by its diverse global membership, including leading corporations and institutions.


  • India’s Position: India views WEF mainly as a dialogue and networking platform, not a treaty-negotiation forum.


Prelims Practice Question

Consider the following statements regarding the World Economic Forum (WEF):

1. It is a non-profit organisation that promotes public-private cooperation to address global challenges.

2. The WEF serves as a formal platform for binding trade negotiations between member countries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct as WEF is a non-profit platform promoting public-private cooperation.
Statement 2 is incorrect because WEF is primarily a forum for dialogue and idea exchange, not formal trade negotiations.

Source: The Times of India

Lok Sabha to launch digital attendance system

GS 2: Polity – Parliament, Parliamentary Procedures, E-Governance

Context

The Lok Sabha will introduce a digital attendance system from the Budget Session 2026 to ensure the actual physical presence of Members of Parliament inside the House and to improve accountability and productivity.

Key Points

What is the system

  • A seat-based biometric attendance mechanism replacing the earlier lobby register system.


  • Attendance can be marked only from designated seats inside the Lok Sabha chamber.


Announcement

  • Announced by Om Birla, Speaker of the Lok Sabha.


Objectives

  • Ensure actual presence of MPs during House sittings.


  • Improve discipline, transparency, and legislative productivity.


  • Link daily allowance strictly to House presence.


How it works

  • Each MP seat is fitted with a digital console.


  • MPs mark attendance using biometric thumb authentication.


  • Attendance can be recorded only while the House is in session.


  • Once the House is adjourned, the system is automatically locked.


  • Failure to mark attendance leads to forfeiture of daily allowance.


Key Features

  • Lobby register system abolished, preventing symbolic attendance.


  • Biometric verification ensures accuracy and prevents proxy marking.


  • Time-bound locking discourages strategic or delayed attendance.


  • Prevents MPs from marking attendance and leaving immediately.


  • Reinforces the principle that attendance equals participation.


Broader Parliamentary Reforms

  • Complements paperless proceedings.


  • Supports real-time multilingual translation.


  • Aligns with AI-assisted workflows and modern e-governance.


  • Advances a more efficient and citizen-centric Parliament.


UPSC Prelims Practice Question

Consider the following statements regarding the new digital attendance system in the Lok Sabha:

1. Attendance can be marked only from the designated seat inside the Lok Sabha chamber using biometric authentication.

2. MPs can mark attendance at any time during the day, even after the House is adjourned.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct as the system is seat-based and biometric, ensuring physical presence inside the House.
Statement 2 is incorrect because once the House is adjourned, the system is locked and attendance cannot be marked.

Source: Hindustan Times


Punjab Police launches ‘Operation Parhar’

GS 3: Internal Security – Organised Crime, Law and Order

Context

Punjab Police has launched Operation Parhar, a statewide coordinated crackdown to dismantle organised gangster networks and curb violent and organised crime across the State.

Key Points

Nature of the Operation

  • Operation Parhar is a large-scale anti-gangster drive aimed at making Punjab crime-free.


  • It represents one of the most extensive coordinated policing actions in recent years.


Operational Scale

  • Around 2,000 police teams involving nearly 12,000 personnel conducted simultaneous raids.


  • The operation covered multiple locations across Punjab at the same time.


Crimes Targeted

  • Focus on violent crimes, extortion, illegal arms trade, and organised criminal activities.


  • Active gangsters and their operational associates are primary targets.


Identification of Criminal Networks

  • Punjab Police have identified 60 major gangsters operating in the State.


  • Nearly 1,200 associates linked to these gangs have been mapped.


Ecosystem-Based Policing

  • The operation aims to dismantle the entire criminal ecosystem, not just arrest individuals.


  • Targets include financing channels, logistics networks, safe houses, weapons supply chains, and communication links.


Official Statement

  • Punjab DGP Gaurav Yadav stated that strict action will be taken against all identified offenders.


  • The focus is on long-term disruption of organised crime.


Citizen Participation

  • A dedicated Anti-Gangster Helpline: 93946-93946 has been launched.


  • Citizens are encouraged to share information related to gangster activities.


Protection of Informants

  • Police assured complete confidentiality of informants.


  • Public cooperation is considered crucial for restoring law and order.
    .


UPSC Prelims Practice Question

‘Operation Parhar’, often seen in the news, is related to:
(a) Counter-insurgency operations
(b) Anti-gangster and organised crime crackdown
(c) Cybercrime surveillance programme
(d) Prison administration reforms

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation:
Operation Parhar is a statewide anti-gangster operation launched by Punjab Police to dismantle organised crime networks and their support systems.

Source: The Hindu

Abu Dhabi ranked world’s safest city for 10th consecutive year

GS 1: Society – Urbanisation, Quality of Life

Context

Abu Dhabi has topped the Numbeo Global Safety Index 2026, securing the world’s safest city rank for the tenth straight year, highlighting its strong public security framework and citizen-centric urban governance.

Key Points

Global Safety Ranking

  • Abu Dhabi ranked 1st globally among 400+ cities evaluated across 150+ countries.


  • It has maintained the top position consistently since 2017.


About the Safety Index

  • The index is released by Numbeo, a global data platform.


  • It assesses perceived crime levels, safety while walking during day and night, and public confidence.


Public Security Performance

  • The city records very low crime rates.


  • Residents report high levels of personal safety, even at night.


Technology-Driven Policing

  • Extensive use of artificial intelligence and predictive analytics in law enforcement.


  • Real-time surveillance systems help in early threat detection and rapid response.


Preventive Policing Model

  • Focus on prevention rather than reaction.


  • Risks are addressed before escalation, reducing visible coercive enforcement.


Public Trust and Urban Life

  • Safety is experienced as reassurance, not intimidation.


  • High public trust contributes to better quality of urban life.


Global Benchmark

  • Abu Dhabi’s performance sets a global benchmark for urban safety and governance.


  • It outperforms several major global metropolitan cities.


UPSC Prelims Practice Question

‘Numbeo Global Safety Index’, often seen in the news, is related to:
(a) Ranking cities based on military preparedness
(b) Measuring urban safety and crime perception
(c) Assessing disaster resilience of cities
(d) Evaluating economic competitiveness of urban centres

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation:
The Numbeo Global Safety Index ranks cities based on crime perception, personal safety, and public confidence, making it a measure of urban safety.

Source: The Hindu


Internet Governance Internship & Capacity Building Scheme (IGICBS)

GS 2: Governance – Government Schemes, Digital Governance

Context

The National Internet Exchange of India (NIXI) has completed one year of the Internet Governance Internship & Capacity Building Scheme (IGICBS) and marked the milestone with a national-level event in New Delhi.

Key Points

What is IGICBS

  • A national internship and capacity-building programme focused on internet governance.


  • Trains youth to participate in internet policy, standards, and technical forums at national and global levels.


Launch Timeline

  • Launched in 2025.


  • Completed one year in January 2026.


Organisations Involved

  • Nodal Agency: National Internet Exchange of India


  • Administrative Ministry: Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)


Objectives

  • Create a skilled talent pool in internet governance.


  • Strengthen India’s representation in global internet decision-making.


  • Promote a safe, inclusive, resilient, and trustworthy internet ecosystem.


Key Features

  • Structured Internships: 3-month and 6-month programmes combining research and field outreach.


  • Mentorship Model: Interns guided by experts from government, academia, and global IG bodies.


  • Capacity Building: Mandatory awareness programmes in colleges, NGOs, and local communities.


  • Global Exposure: Engagement with international internet governance institutions.


  • NIXI Internet Influencer Pathway: High-performing interns certified as long-term ambassadors.


  • Interdisciplinary Approach: Covers technology, law, public policy, cybersecurity, digital identity, and Universal Acceptance.


Significance

  • Enhances India’s strategic participation in global internet governance.


  • Bridges policy–technology–academia, nurturing future digital leadership.


Supports India’s vision of a rules-based and inclusive digital order